Potentially misleading subject adapted from the headline of this NYT article. An Orthodox Jewish high school in London is refusing to admit a Jewish student who is not, by Orthodox standards, Jewish, because he is not Jewish. Predictably, there's a court challenge. By my definition, the kid is obviously Jewish: his father is Jewish, his mother converted to Judaism in a progressive synagogue, he was raised and identifies as Jewish. By the orthodox church's definition, he isn't because his mother converted in a progressive synagogue.
I was surprised, when reading the article, to see that the appellate court ruled that the school's decision was was based on race, rather than religion, and therefore constitutes unlawful discrimination. An appeal from that to the high court follows, so we'll see what winds up happening. Without doing any actual research on the specific issue, I'm pretty sure that in the U.S. a court would or could not decide that question based on the first amendment's religion clauses, and I'm nearly certain that a court would refuse to do so based on the internal-affairs doctrine. Under the internal-affairs doctrine, courts (at least federal courts) do not exercise jurisdiction over the internal affairs of religious organizations, and will not define religion or decide internal religious affairs if they can avoid it.
You can see the problem: a court tells a Jewish organization or entity how it must define its Jewish membership. First amendment principles, which I find normatively attractive, do not favor government dictating religious issues. This is apparently a contentious issue within the Jewish community. Government deciding religious matters threatens secularism and pluralism. Yes, the school's decision is offensive, and yes, a court order can remedy this student's problem. But at the same time, it can't settle the debate in the community, and is likely to only exacerbate tensions. This demonstrates the limits of law in settling important cultural matters.
A further complication is that Britain has publicly financed religious schools that are allowed to give preference to applicants within their own faiths, which I assume would be unconstitutional in the U.S. Once the government starts getting involved, where does/can it draw the involvement-uninvolvement line? If it's not secular, I don't see how this can work.
Leave a comment